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Shulaverian Hypothesis vs Armenian Hypothesis

por Olympus Mons, em 21.10.18

Someone recently asked of my Shulaverian Hypothesis was the Armenian Hypthesis for Indo European languages. Lets look into it, 

Broadly one must admit that the shulaverian Hypothesis is somewhat similar to the Armenian, if not for anything else in opposition to the most prevailing theories of steppe and Anatolia farmers language. This fact might derive from the fact that when Gamkrelidze  and Ivanov wrote their work the Shulaveri-Shomu were not properly documented. One can say they were not a reality before Kushnareva, K. Kh. 1997 work, even though some of the earliest found Shulaverian sites were found in the sixties. To them it they really focus on Halaf/Hassuna or something maybe Ubaid. They never contemplate that it might be the Shulaveri-Shomu.

So, on their own words they did not have a clue of whom:

“We concede that in the broad territory in which we have placed he homeland of the Indo-Europeans there is no archaeological evidence of a culture that can be positively linked to them. Archaeologists have identified, however, a number of sites that bear evidence of a material and spiritual culture similar to the one implied by the Indo-European lexicon. The Halafian culture of northern Mesopotamia decorated its vessels with religious symbols—bulls' horns and sometimes rams' heads, which are masculine symbols, and ritual images of leopard skins—that are shared by the somewhat later Catal Huyuk culture of the seventh millennium B.C. in western Anatolia. Both cultures have affinities with the later Transcaucasian culture in the region embraced by the Kura and the Araks rivers, which includes southern Transcaucasia, eastern Anatolia end northern Iran.”

 Armenian Hypothesis:

“According to Gamkrelidze and Ivanov, the Indo-European languages derive from a language originally spoken in the wide area of eastern Anatolia, the southern Caucasus, and northern Mesopotamia. The Anatolian languages, including Hittite, split-off before 4000 BCE, and migrated into Anatolia at around 2000 BCE. Around 4000 BCE, the proto-Indo-European community split into Greek-Armenian-Indo-Iranians, Celto-Italo-Tocharians, and Balto-Slavo-Germanics. At around 3000–2500 BCE, Greek moved to the west, while the Indo-Aryans, the Celto-Italo-Tocharians and the Balto-Slavo-Germanics moved east, and then northwards along the eastern slope of the Caspian Sea. The Tocharians split from the Italo-Celtics before 2000 BCE and moved further east, while the Italo-Celtics and the Balto-Slavo-Germanics turned west again towards the northern slopes of the Black Sea. From there, they expanded further into Europe between around 2000 and 1000 BCE.[10][8]

So,

AH- Armenian Hypothesis Vs  SH - Shulaverian Hypothesis:

“According to Gamkrelidze and Ivanov, the Indo-European languages derive from a language originally spoken in the wide area of eastern Anatolia, the southern Caucasus, and northern Mesopotamia 

 

- As per shulaverian PIE was spoken precisely in Georgia.  Yes, slightly in Azerbaijan and the offshoot of Georgian in two small places in Aratashen and Arkanshen but bulk was much north, in contrast to AH that states east Anatolia and Northern Mesoptamia. So, either they believe Halaf, Ubaid, Hassuna-Samarra or a later akin of an evolution of a Neolithic local farmer language, spoken by Kura-Araxes. Which as per SH is wrong. Both the sooner (Ubaid) or the later (Kura-araxes). Either did not spoke PIE. …

 

“The Anatolian languages, including Hittite, split-off before 4000 BCE, and migrated into Anatolia at around 2000 BCE. Around 4000 BCE, the proto-Indo-European community split into Greek-Armenian-Indo-Iranians, Celto-Italo-Tocharians, and Balto-Slavo-Germanics.”

 

Actually much before 4000bc. Most of 6th millennium locals, the Shulaveri-Shomu already were PIE and that truly moves PIE form the 4000bc to 5500bc. I Read somewhere the first analytical and statistics analysis pointed back then to a much older dates for PIE than 4000bc... Being fully Neolithic farmer which created problems to already vocal and influential steppists!

As per SH, yes it split of before 4000, something between 5000bc and 4700 bc. And split meant that only a small group, or several groups of small sizes remained as IE in the south Caucasus, North western Iran and yes east Anatolia.  As all others departed. One would guess that only small groups flee to nearby mountains, some to eastern Anatolia and some to North Mesopotamia, but in an area overtaken by that new people which I think were a mix of south Ubaid/Uruk and eastern flowing from places east and further south of Caspian. Why not. But then the other IE could no longer be seen and the Kuras-araxes and the Leylatepe and uruk were of other languages. Best guess for remaining PIE orginals would be places such as Mugain Plains with cultures such as Alikemek-Tepesi that derived with what we saw as the pastoral that were around Hajji Firuz or transhumance in north of Urmia lake…

 

“Celto-Italo-Tocharians, and Balto-Slavo-Germanics. At around 3000–2500 BCE, Greek moved to the west, while the Indo-Aryans, the Celto-Italo-Tocharians and the Balto-Slavo-Germanics moved east…”

 To the SH from this point on is just too wrong how G&I looked at this issue kind of assuming some local centrality and Greeks protagonism. Shulaverian postulates the following:  Those that remained made the above paragraph milieu that led to Hittite.  But the rest of the PIE history is made purely by two vectors.  The Shulaverian descendants that moved to north Caucasus and the steppe (lets set 4500bc as date) and the ones that crossed north Anatolia and landed in South Balkans (4500bc). To these later ones use the Kumtepe girl (KUM6) as a reference. So, south Balkans spoke PIE as so did the Greeks. It’s the same population. Not impossible that even Otzi spoke some sort of IE.By 4000BC both PIE populations (Steppe and Balkans) were meeting in places such as North black sea and it was these two that made the dispersal of IE languages as whatever story one wants to reference. CWC or BB or any other related to that time and broad region one wants to use. And yet let us not forget that most likely dozens of IE speaking people might have existed spread out Europe. IF we all speak a centralized derivation of root PIE might have happen in the Bronze age or even early Iron age, but mostly happen because it might have made sense (lets called it late and late late PIE) because it made sense and sounded familiar to a lot of people throughout Europe that knew some of those words already and phonetically sounded familiar.

 

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